Goldman Sach's latest quarterly report reveals that the firm has over $8 billion of assets it lists as "receivables from customers and counterparties."
A year ago, it reported it had just $1.8 billionof these kind of assets.
What's going on here?
I suspect that the growth of receivables from customers and counterparties must reflect a recategorization of assets due to the reorganization of Goldman . Assets that were once trading assets are very likely now "receiveables."
The other possibility, I guess, is that many of Goldman's customers just haven't been paying lately, leaving many assets as receivable rather than owned outright.
I've asked Goldman about this. I'll post their explanation when I hear from them.
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